Does “All” mean “All”?
Some claim the “all” in the context of the Blessed Hope promises does not mean every single person. It merely means “all without distinction” (all races), not “all without exception.” However, Dr. Keith DeRose, Yale Philosophy professor (Spec. Philosophy of Language, also a believer), wrote:
Quantifier phrases…are to be understood…relative to a contextually determined domain….When the domain is limited, there has to be some fairly clear clue about what the limited domain is. When “all” is used in the NT, as in “All have sinned [Ro. 3:23] and fallen short of the glory of God,” the “all” I take it, refers to all people. It could possibly refer to some restricted class of people, but that suggestion is to be rejected, because (a) there is no such restricted class that clearly presents itself, (b) it’s incumbent on a speaker to make clear what the class is if he means it to be restricted, and (c) the N.T. does not specify any such restricted class. So, “All have sinned” means that all people have sinned, as almost all would agree. (11)
DeRose goes on to say as “all” have sinned is not restricted, so are the passages supporting our theme (as found in Appendix I). He continues,
What restricted class of people could be meant? [Ro. 5:18 and 1 Co. 15:22 for example] Surely not all the saved; that would turn the statements into useless tautologies: all the saved are saved? The Biblical writers aren’t so incompetent as to mean some specially restricted class that doesn’t clearly present itself without making it clear. (12)
Were it not for the prevailing view’s agenda, the “all,” in such passages as 1Co. 15:22 would never have been questioned in the first place. Consider a text shedding light on this: “You have put all things in subjection under His feet” (He. 2:8). Is there a restricted sense to “all” in this passage?
A. “You have put all things in subjection under his feet.
B. For in that He put all things in subjection under Him,
C. He left nothing that is not put under Him.
D. But now we do not yet see all things put under Him.”
This is a unique passage, as it provides its own built in commentary. What if this passage only contained clause A, like most Blessed Hope passages? Then some could argue “all” only means “all without distinction”. because “all things” are not presently in subjection. However, those additional clauses give us a biblical model for other Blessed Hope promises.
This passage reveals two very important truths: “All” in this promise means “all without exception,” not “all without distinction”. It will find its fulfillment in God’s appointed time. Note the words “but now” and “not yet.” Clause C shows that “all” is without exception. No one would contest this. Clause D specifies that God’s promises will find their fulfillment in due time, though at present, it is not so. If there is any question about the compatibility of this passage with other Blessed Hope texts, it is refuted by the following statement directly linked by a second “but”: “But we see Jesus…by the grace of God…taste death for everyone” (He. 2:9). We can wholeheartedly trust God when He says “all” in His Blessed Hope promises; “all” is not a mysterious code word for “some.”
References:
11-12 DeRose, Keith. “Universalism and the Bible: The Really Good News.” 2 May 2006. http://pantheon.yale.edu/%7Ekd47/univ.htm#3.
From Hope Beyond Hell Revised 2010 pages 218-219
May 18, 2011
Thanks! I have some more recent thoughts about this here: http://prosblogion.ektopos.com/archives/2011/03/all.html