Why doesn’t the Bible make this Hope clear?
The Bible is a collection of ancient documents written in a world far removed from our own. We cannot read it in the original languages and must trust translators. The problem is that translators cannot help but interpret the ancient writings according to their view of God. If they think He is a mean God who does cruel things, then that skews their interpretation that way. Tragically, the major translations are the works of believers in eternal punishment. So, when it comes to studying that theme, we are at a great disadvantage if they are wrong. That is why we need to diligently compare a wide range of translations and do our own study. We should draw our conclusions based on the bigger picture of Scripture, not isolated texts. I wish it were easier. Here’s an example of our challenge:
The YLT always translates aion as “age.” The Rotherham translates it as “age, age-abiding.” The CLT translates it “eon.” But the KJV translates aion by nine different words: “age,” “course,” “end,” “eternal,” “everlast-ing,” “evermore,” (for) “ever,” “never,” and “world.” How can this be? These words have many different meanings. Unless we use a reference work, such as The Word Study New Testament, we have no way of knowing when and where our translators have taken such liberties with the inspired Word. In just the first three chapters of Ephesians, (a key book regarding God’s plan for man relative to the fullness of the times) aion is used seven times. And out of those seven, the KJV has chosen five different English words (“ages,” “course,” “end,” “eternal,” and “world”) to translate this one Greek word! And to add to this confusion, it translates the Greek word genea (generation), a totally different word, twice as “ages.” Talk about confusion compounded! Is it any wonder that the Church has been blinded from God’s truth about His judgments and the Blessed Hope? To clarify, I have submitted below the relevant KJV and YLT verses from the first three chapters of Ephesians so you can see how they compare where the word aion is used. All underlined words are translations of the Greek word aion.
King James Version
1:21 Not only in this world, but also in that which is to come
2:2 According to the course of this world
2:7 In the ages to come
3:9 From the beginning of the world hath been hid
3:11 According to the eternal purpose
3:5 Which in other ages [genea]
3:21 Throughout all ages [genea], world without end. Amen.
Young’s Literal Translation
1:21 Not only in this age, but also in the coming one
2:2 According to the age of this world
2:7 In the ages that are coming
3:9 Hid from the ages
3:11 According to a purpose of the ages
3:5 Which in other generations [genea]
3:21 To all the generations [genea], of the age of the ages. Amen.
Ep. 3:21 is saying something to us about Christ’s glory in the church, the ekklesia, that Vine defines as “the whole company of the redeemed throughout the present era.” (10) This “whole company,” are God’s “first” fruits. Now, if you wanted to do a study on Ep. 1:9-12, which talks about a mystery, the gathering together of all in Christ, predestination, God’s purpose, the counsel of His will, those who “first” trusted in Christ, and the dispensation or administration of the “fullness of times;” which of these versions would likely lead you to the truth? Compare again Ep. 3:21: Are they both saying the same thing? Which is most accurate to the original language? “Unto Him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, world without end” (KJV). Or “To Him is the glory in the assembly in Christ Jesus, to all the generations of the age of the ages?” (YLT).
The “age of the ages” and “world without end” do not mean the same thing! Why should “age of the ages” be a mystery and require interpreta-tion? Is it not a biblical expression like many others like it? Consider the following: “King of kings and Lord of lords” (Ti. 6:15); “Holy and most Holy” (Ex. 26:33); “Song of songs” (So. 1:1); “Vanity of vanities” (Ec. 12:8); “Servant of servants” (Ge. 9:25); “God of gods and Lord of lords” (De.10:17); “Prince of princes” (Da. 8:25); “Hebrew of Hebrews” (Ph. 3:5). Do you have any problem understanding these expressions? Then why should Ephesians 3:21 be an enigma? It must refer to the final and greatest of all ages.
I realize words often carry different meanings according to context, and thus require different words to translate accurately. The problem comes when fallible humans attempt to translate the “inspired” words of God with a flawed mindset about His character (Mt. 6:23). The safest and most accurate way to determine the meaning of Bible words is to study how they are used in all contexts. Here we need a Greek/Hebrew-based concordance as referred to on page 20. Otherwise, we are at the total mercy of translators. There is no substitute to doing our own study (2Ti. 2:15).
Above all, unless the Spirit of God opens our eyes and ears to His truth (Mt. 13:9), all our efforts in Bible study will be of little help. Let us diligently pray that the Lord will open our hearts and minds to understand the Scriptures as He opened them to His disciples on the road to Emmaus (Lu. 24:45).
References:
10 Vine, W.E. An Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words. New York: Nelson, 1985. 42.
From Hope Beyond Hell Revised 2010 pages 216-217
